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Question 1:
What is layer 3 of the OSI model called?
A. network

Question 2:
Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems where routing occurs?
A. physical layer
B. data link layer
C. network layer
D. transport layer

Question 3:
Which layer of the OSI model describes the various types of networking media?
C. physical layer

Question 4:
Packets are encapsulated into frames at which layer of the OSI model?
A. data link

Question 5:
What is the function of the session layer?
C. provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems

Question 6:
Which is a characteristic of the TCP/IP model?
A. combines host and media layers
B. combines session and transport layers
C. combines data link and physical layers
D. combines network and data link layers

Question 7:
At which layer of the TCP/IP model are FTP and HTTP located?
A. application
B. transport
C. internet
D. network

Question 8:
Which is an advantage of a layered network model?
C. simplifies learning

Question 9:
A set of rules that determines the format and transmission of data is known as what?
A. standard
B. model
C. representation
D. protocol

Question 10:
Which best describes the function of the presentation layer?
B. concerned with data structures and negotiation data transfer syntax

Question 11:
Which process does the OSI model describe?
C. how information or data moves from one computer through a network to another computer

Question 12:
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable network communication between end nodes and provides mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection and recovery, and information flow control?
D. transport layer

Question 13:
Which correctly describes a source address?
B. the address of a host that sends data and information to other computers in a network

Question 14:
What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI model?
A. physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application

Question 15:
Which best describes the function of the physical layer?
A. Defines the electrical and functional specifications for the link between end systems.
B. Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link.
C. Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems.
D. Concerned with physical addressing, network topology and media access.

Question 16:
Which best defines media in terms of networking?
A. material through which data packets travel
B. encapsulation of encoded information
D. activation and maintenance of data links between systems

Question 17:
In the TCP/IP model, which layer would deal with reliability, flow control, and error correction?
A. transport
B. internet
C. network
D. application

Question 18:
When encapsulating data, what is the control information that is placed before the data called?
B. header

Question 19:
At which layer of the OSI model is telnet located?
A. transport
B. session
C. presentation
D. application

Question 1:
What is the purpose of a NIC?
B. provides the host's access to the medium

Question 2:
When creating a network from just two PCs, what kind of cable would be used to directly connect them?
D. UTP crossover cable

Question 3:
What are the most important traffic-regulating devices on large networks?
C. routers

Question 4:
Which statement best describes bridges and the way they make forwarding decisions?
C. they operate at OSI Layer 2 and use MAC addresses to make decisions

Question 5:
Because a cloud is not really a device, but a collection of assumed capabilities, which OSI layers are represented in a cloud?
D. Layers 1-7

Question 6:
A hub operates at which OSI layer?
A. 1

Question 7:
What does a switch use to make data forwarding decisions?
B. MAC address

Question 8:
At which OSI layer does a repeater function?
A. 1

Question 9:
Which material is used for network media?
D. fiber

Question 10:
Which could be considered a layer 1-7 device?
D. computer

Question 11:
Routers operate primarily at what layer of the OSI model?
C. Layer 3

Question 12:
Which layer of the OSI model describes networking media?
C. physical layer

Question 13:
Which is considered a layer 2 device?
C. switch

Question 14:
What is the purpose of a repeater?
B. amplifies and retimes network signals

Question 15:
What is a type of logical topology?
D. token passing

Question 16:
At which layer of the OSI model is the NIC located?
A. Layer 2

Question 17:
What is the function of a transceiver?
A. extends the length of network segment
B. converts one media type to another
C. segments two LANS
D. increases the number of devices on a segment

Question 18:
What is another name for a multi-port repeater?
C. hub

Question 19:
What is the primary purpose of a router?
A. to make packet forwarding decisions based on physical addresses
B. to make packet forwarding decisions based on logical addresses

Question 20:
What data units are associated with OSI Layer 1?
A. bits

Question 21:
If 4 hosts are connected to a hub how many IP addresses are required for these 5 devices?
C. four

Question 22:
What is the correct order of encapsulation?
A. data, segment, packet, frame, bits

Question 1:
Which of the following would represent a DC source of electricity?
B. a car or flashlight battery

Question 2:
What is propagation of a network signal?
A. travel

Question 3:
What is the best definition of electrical current?
A. force or pressure caused by the separation of electrons and protons

Question 4:
Which term best describes the delay of a network signal?
C. latency

Question 5:
In electrical terms, what does AC mean?
A. alternating current

Question 6:
When measuring voltage with a multimeter which setting must be set?
A. AC or DC

Question 7:
Which term best describes two devices communicating on a shared-medium at the
same time?
C. collision

Question 8:
What is the result of impedance mismatch?
A. reflected energy

Question 9:
Which describes cancellation in cabling?
A. Wires in the same circuit cancel each other's electrical current flow.
B. Twisting of wire pairs provides self-shielding within the network media.
C. The magnetic fields from separate cables cancel magnetic fields of another
cables.
D. External magnetic fields cancel the fields inside network cabling.

Question 10:
Which term describes the conversion of binary data into a form that can travel
on a physical communications link?
A. encoding

Question 11:
Where is the safety ground connected on a computer?
A. exposed metal parts

Question 12:
What is the opposition to the movement of electrons as they move through
materials?
B. resistance

Question 13:
What is attenuation?
C. a signal losing strength to its surroundings

Question 14:
How many bits compose 1 byte?
C. 8

Question 15:
What are the three required parts of an electrical circuit?
A. switch, source or battery, load or resistance
B. source or battery, complete path, switch
C. source or battery, complete path, load or resistance
D. power, source or battery, load or resistance

Question 16:
Which type of electrical circuit will have a continuously varying
voltage-versus-time graph?
B. analog

Question 17:
Which is an external source of electrical impulses that can attack the quality
of electrical signals on a cable?
A. EMI caused by electrical motors

Question 18:
Which best describes an insulator?
B. Any material with a high resistance to electrical current.

Question 19:
What is the best definition of voltage?
A. force or pressure caused by the separation of electrons and protons

Question 20:
What are the three parts of an atom?
C. neutron, electron, proton

Question 21:
What is the unit of measure for resistance?
B. ohm

Question 22:
What kind of schemes are Manchester and NRZ?
A. encoding

Question 23:
What is the primary cause of crosstalk?
D. electrical noise from other wires in a cable

Question 1:
Which best describes bus topology?
B. all of its nodes connected directly to one physical link

Question 2:
What is a feature of coaxial cable?
C. It contains a copper conductor at the center.

Question 3:
What is the standard 10Base-T termination for the telecommunications outlet?
B. RJ-45

Question 4:
What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling in networks?
C. not susceptible to electromagnetic interference

Question 5:
Which is a characteristic of a collision domain?
A. all computers on a single shared access media
B. all computers sharing a single IP address
C. all computers sharing a single MAC address
D. all computers within a WAN

Question 6:
How many collision domains exist in a network containing one repeater AND one hub?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. five

Question 7:
What happens to data packets during a collision?
C. It will be destroyed, bit by bit.

Question 8:
What is true about RJ-45 connectors?
A. have eight conductors

Question 9:
What does the twisting of the wires do in a CAT-5 cable?
C. limits signal degradation

Question 10:
How many collision domains exist in a network containing two repeaters?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. five

Question 11:
What is the networking term used for a device that is the center of a star topology network?
A. bridge
B. port
C. hub
D. filter

Question 12:
What is the maximum cable length of unshielded twisted pair (UTP), in meters?
A. 100

Question 13:
How many collision domains exist in a network containing two hubs?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. five

Question 14:
What is an advantage of coaxial cable?
B. It is less expensive than any other type of cabling.
C. It is easier to install than UTP.

Question 15:
Which element of the TIA/EIA standard allows for the greatest cable length?
A. patch cords
B. work area cable
C. horizontal cabling

Question 16:
What is a feature of fiber-optic cable?
A. It is capable of higher data rates than other types of networking media.
B. Its core is made of highly reflective Kevlar.
C. It relies on total internal cancellation to guide light for tremendous distances.
D. It uses an intense incandescent light.

Question 17:
Which of the following best describes a star topology?
D. central node with all links to other nodes radiating from it

Question 18:
What is a characteristic of a complete (mesh) topology.
C. Every node is linked directly to each other.

Question 19:
What are disadvantages of using a star topology?
A. hard to setup, install, and maintain the network
B. difficult to diagnose problems that occur in the network
C. needs lots of network media and the network would be susceptible to problems at central node
D. inability to modify the design of the network once it has been set up

Question 20:
What kind of cable is most frequently recommended and implemented in installations today?
C. category 5

Question 21:
Which best describes an extended star topology?
A. LAN topology in which each of the end nodes of the core topology are acting as the center of its own star topology

Question 22:
What is the term used for separating collision domains with bridges, switches, and routers?
C. segmentation

Question 23:
Which is true about patch panels?
B. have a punch down block on one side

Question 24:
What is one purpose of a repeater?
D. extends the physical length of a network segment

Question 1:
What is true of a deterministic MAC protocol?
C. It allows hosts to "take their turn" for sending data.

Question 2:
What is the decimal value of the hex number ABE?
A. 2750

Question 3:
Hexadecimal is used to represent what kind of addresses?
B. MAC

Question 4:
Which OSI layer handles MAC addresses?
C. 2

Question 5:
Convert the decimal number 43 to Hex.
A. 2B

Question 6:
What section of the frame handles error checking?
B. FCS

Question 7:
Convert the decimal number 2989 to Hex.
B. BAD

Question 8:
What is the hex value of the binary number 11100010?
B. E2

Question 9:
What section of the frame contains the information you want to send?
A. data field
B. FCS
C. address field
D. stop frame field

Question 10:
How did the IEEE standard differ from the OSI model?
A. They defined their own layer 1 protocol.
B. They split layer 2 into two sublayers.
C. They split layer 3 into two protocols.
D. They combined layers 1 and 2.

Question 11:
Which organization's LAN standards include 802.3 and 802.5?
B. IEEE.

Question 12:
Why did the IEEE create LLC?
A. to allow part of the datalink layer to be independent of existing technologies

Question 13:
What is a function of a MAC address?
A. provides a unique identity
B. provides a hierarchical addressing scheme
C. provides a collision free domain
D. provides increased network stability

Question 14:
Which protocol uses deterministic media access?
A. Ethernet
B. Token Ring
C. ATM
D. Frame Relay

Question 15:
What is 16 raised to the first power (16 1 )?
A. decimal 1
B. decimal 16
C. hex FF
D. hex 16

Question 16:
What is the Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI)?
C. the last 6 hex digits of a MAC address

Question 17:
Define media access control.
D. Protocols that determine which computer on a shared-medium environment are allowed to transmit data.

Question 18:
What is the term used to describe the result of the layer 2 encapsulation process?
A. frame

Question 19:
What section of the frame contains the source and destination information?
C. address field

Question 20:
Which best describes a MAC address?
A. a 48 bit address consisting of 24 bits for OUI and 24 bits for vendor
B. a 32-bit address that consists of a network number, an optional subnetwork number, and a host number
C. a 48 bit address that is administered by InterNIC
D. a set of four numbers that use a hierarchical addressing scheme

Question 21:
What are the sections of a frame called?
A. fields

Question 1:
FDDI and token-ring share which of the following features?
B. use a ring topology

Question 2:
Why is Ethernet known as a best-effort delivery system?
A. If a destination device detects any errors, then the data packet is discarded and the sender notified.
B. The destination device notifies the source only if it receives all of the data.
C. The destination only notifies the source if the data was corrupted.
D. If the destination must discard the data, then it does not notify the source.

Question 3:
What are two types of token ring frames?
B. 802.2 and 802.5
C. data/command and token

Question 4:
Which best describes a network segment?
A. section of a network containing a predetermined number of addressable services
B. section of a network that is a logical grouping based on MAC addresses
C. section of a network that contains Token Ring topology
D. section of a network bounded by routers, switches, or bridges

Question 5:
What is the most widely used local area network (LAN) technology?
A. Token Ring
B. Ethernet
D. FDDI

Question 6:
What is the relationship between an Ethernet version 2 header and the header of an 802.3 frame?
C. The two headers are the same length as each other.
D. The two headers are completely different from each other.

Question 7:
Which fiber mode characteristic is recommended for inter-building connectivity?
A. single-mode

Question 8:
Which of the following is true concerning bridges?
D. They can improve network performance.

Question 9:
Which of the following statements are true of routers?
D. They base forwarding decisions on Layer 3 protocol addresses.

Question 10:
What is the process of each port of a switch being its own small bridge?
A. macrosegmentation
B. microsegmentation
C. port-centric
D. none of the above

Question 11:
What is true of 10BaseT signals?
C. They are designed to send and receive signals over a segment that consists of 4 wires.

Question 12:
On a LAN, what part of a host connects to the media?
A. media interface port
B. serial port
C. MAC card
D. NIC card

Question 13:
How does a token-ring topology differ from an Ethernet topology?
A. Token-ring is deterministic.
B. Token-ring networks have increased collisions.
D. Token-ring operates at 10 Mbps and Ethernet at 16 Mbps.

Question 14:
Which device can significantly reduce collisions?
C. switch

Question 15:
What can be done if the area of the LAN is more than 200 meters in diameter?
A. a repeater could be installed to extend the network

Question 16:
Which LAN technology uses CSMA/CD?
A. Ethernet

Question 17:
What are two token-ring frame fields, within the Access Control Byte, that control priority?
A. reservation field and priority field

Question 18:
What private company created Ethernet?
D. Cisco

Question 19:
What device builds a MAC address table?
B. bridge

Question 20:
Which of the following best describes a broadcast storm?
B. When too many broadcasts are sent out over the network

Question 21:
Which of the 4 FDDI specifications defines how the medium is accessed?
A. Media Access Control (MAC)

Question 1:
Where should the main distribution facility (MDF) be located in a multi-story building using an extended star topology?
C. on one of the middle floors

Question 2:
What happens if you touch two objects with different potential voltages?
B. you complete the circuit and get a shock

Question 3:
If Acme Inc. occupies the first three floors of a building and each floor is 1500 square meters, how many wiring closets should be installed according to EIA/TIA 569?
C. six

Question 4:
What is the purpose of the safety ground in a computer?
D. prevents metal parts from becoming energized with a hazardous voltage

Question 5:
What is the "one-hand rule?"
A. Only touch electrical devices with one hand at a time to prevent electricity from flowing through the body.

Question 6:
What kind of power disturbances can be caused by strikes?
C. surges

Question 7:
What is the first step in locating a wiring closet for a network?
D. Identify the topological requirements of devices that will be in the network.

Question 8:
What kind of floor should the wiring room have?
A. tile or other finished surface

Question 9:
How does AC line noise create problems?
B. by adding unwanted voltage to the desired signals

Question 10:
What best describes the problems caused by electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
B. It destroys semiconductors and data.

Question 11:
Why should fluorescent light fixtures be avoided in wiring closets?
B. They generate outside interference.

Question 12:
Which type of networking media is now installed most often for backbone cabling?
C. 62.5/125 micron fiber-optic cable

Question 13:
In what types of situations will a safety ground connection not be sufficient?
B. when the earth grounds between two parts of a network are identical
D. when ground wires in separate locations have slightly different potential

Question 14:
How can the creation of potentially dangerous circuits between buildings be avoided?
B. Fiber-optic cable should be used as the backbone of the network.

Question 15:
What network device is used in an extended star topology when the catchment area of one wiring closet is not enough?
A. repeater

Question 16:
What problem could be caused by a faulty ground wire connection at an outlet that is used by networking equipment?
A. Nothing, because IEEE standards separate LAN networking media from power connections.
D. There could be potentially fatal voltages between the LAN's UTP cabling and the chassis of a networking device.

Question 17:
What best describes the difference between alternating and direct current?
D. DC flows at a constant value, whereas AC rises and falls.

Question 18:
How can UTP backbone cabling facilitate entry of lightning into a building?
B. The copper provides a pathway for lightning to enter a building.

Question 19:
When starting to design a network, what should be the first step in the process?
C. documenting costs and developing a budget for implementation

Question 20:
What is a common cause of oscillation often called harmonics?
A. excessively long electrical wiring runs
D. power company switching operations

Question 21:
Why are common mode problems a hazard to you or your computer?
A. They go directly to the computer chassis.

Question 22:
What best describes a wiring closet specification?
B. All cable leaving the room to intermediate distribution facilities and computer and communications rooms located on other floors of a building should be via 8 cm (or smaller) conduits or sleeved cores.
C. Any wall or ceiling openings provided for conduits or sleeved cores must be sealed with smoke and flame retardant materials.

Question 1:
What kind of jack must be used for making a connection to a Category 5 unshielded twisted pair cable in a horizontal cabling scheme?
A. RJ-45

Question 2:
If you have one wiring closet and you want to add more, what name is given to additional wiring closets?
A. IDFs
B. MDFs
C. Extended Stars
D. POPs

Question 3:
What type of raceway should be used if it will be visible in the room?
B. decorative

Question 4:
Why is the wiring sequence critical when RJ-45 jacks are used at the telecommunications outlet in a horizontal cabling scheme?
A. For the network to function properly.
B. Improper wiring sequence will short out the connection.
D. The collision rate is adversely affected.

Question 5:
What should be used to mount cable to a wall?
A. tie wraps

Question 6:
When running cable from the wiring closet to wall jacks, where is the cable itself labeled?
B. at each end

Question 7:
What is the central junction for the network cable?
D. wiring closet

Question 8:
Why is establishing a baseline performance level for a network important?
A. for fulfilling one of the requirements necessary for you to get your network certification
B. for providing your client with proof of a successful installation
C. for future periodic testing of the network and diagnostics
D. for obtaining a network registration and identification number from TIA/EIA and IEEE

Question 9:
How does a cable tester (a TDR) measure distance?
C. It times the signal sent towards and reflected back from the end of an open-ended cable.

Question 10:
What tool would you use to attach CAT5 cable to a patch panel?
C. punch tool

Question 11:
When should cable not be routed in an existing raceway?
C. if it already contains a power cable

Question 12:
How many pins are on each of the ports of a patch panel?
B. 8 pins

Question 13:
What is a rough diagram that shows where the cable runs are located called?
A. cut sheet

Question 14:
Which of the following is a source that can produce interference on UTP cable?
A. fluorescent lights
B. fiber-optic cabling
C. bridges
D. coaxial cabling

Question 15:
Which of the following describes a cable tester measurement of signal attenuation?
A. It measures the reduction in power of a signal received from a signal injector.

Question 16:
Which best describes a patch panel's function?
C. It acts as a switchboard where horizontal cabling from workstations can be connected to other devices to form a LAN.

Question 17:
Why are split pairs a problem for network installations?
B. The wires are part of different circuits so signals are not protected and cross-talk occurs.

Question 18:
What kind of a cable must you use when laying cable through spaces where air is circulated?
C. fire rated

Question 19:
What is the first thing you should do if near-end crosstalk is detected?
D. Visually check the horizontal cabling.

Question 20:
What is one advantage of using distribution racks for mounting patch panels?
A. allows easy access to both the front and back of the equipment

Question 21:
Why shouldn't you install a jack in the bottom five centimeters of a wooden baseboard?
A. The bottom plate of the wall will prevent you from pushing the box into the baseboard.

Question 22:
What is the most important thing to do before you work in walls, ceilings or attics?
C. Turn off power to the area.

Question 23:
All the items below are personal safety precautions before you install cable except :
D. Check for power cables.

Question 24:
What should be done when preparing to run cable?
C. Label the boxes and cable.

Question 25:
How is an RJ-45 jack surface mounted?
D. adhesive backed or screw box

Question 1:
What is decimal number 164 in binary?
A. 10100100

Question 2:
Which type of addressing scheme is formed by MAC addresses?
A. flat
C. hierarchical

Question 3:
Which part of a network layer address does the router use during path determination?
D. the network address

Question 4:
How many bits are in an IP address?
D. 32

Question 5:
Which octet(s) are assigned locally in a class B address?
C. The first and second octets are assigned locally.

Question 6:
Which of the following describes the effect of subnetting on the amount of broadcast traffic?
A. decreases it, because broadcasts are not forwarded outside a subnet
B. decreases it, because it will take less time for a host to get broadcasts from the routers.

Question 7:
Which of the following is a benefit of network segmentation?
C. creation of more IP addresses

Question 8:
Which of the following describes the relationship between path determination and the routing of packets?
C. they are different processes
D. they are the same process

Question 9:
Which of the following best describes the address 139.219.255.255 in an unsubnetted environment?
A. Class A broadcast address
B. Class B host address
C. Class B broadcast address
D. Class C host address

Question 10:
Which class of network addresses allows the borrowing of 15 bits to create subnets?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. No class of network allows the borrowing of 15 bits.

Question 11:
What must be used to allow the rest of the Internet to see our organization as a single network, but allow routing inside our network?
B. autonomous systems
C. subnets

Question 12:
How many total subnets can be created if four bits are borrowed from the host field?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64

Question 13:
Which address(es) appear in an IP packet's header?
A. source address
B. destination address
C. source and destination addresses
D. there are no addresses in the IP packet header.

Question 14:
Which of the following assists devices on the same network in determining a packet's final destination?
A. source IP address
B. vendor number
C. host protocol
D. host ID

Question 15:
Which of the following would be the decimal value of the binary IP address 11001101.11111111.10101010.11001101?
A. 205.255.170.205

Question 16:
Which of the following is an example of a Class C broadcast address?
A. 190.12.253.255
B. 190.44.255.255
C. 221.218.253.255
D. 129.219.145.255

Question 17:
What is specified by the network number in an IP address?
B. the physical identity of the computer on the network

Question 18:
What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed from the host portion of a Class C network to create subnets?
A. 2

Question 19:
Which of the following would be the largest possible number expressed by an 8 bit binary number?
B. 11111111

Question 20:
Which of the following is the approximate number of hosts supported in a Class B unsubnetted network?
C. 65 thousand

Question 21:
Which OSI layer adds an IP header?
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3

Question 22:
Which of the following represents the use of binary ones in a subnet mask?
C. network bits

Question 23:
How large is the network/subnet portion of a Class B license having a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0?
B. 19 bits
D. That is an invalid mask for a Class B network.

Question 24:
Which of the following correctly describes an ISP?
C. Internet Service Provider

Question 25:
What characteristic must hosts on a network possess in order to communicate directly ?
B. same network ID

Question 1:
Which is an example of a Layer 3 internetworking device that passes data packets between networks?
A. router

Question 2:
When sending data to a host on a different network, the source host encapsulates data so that it contains what destination address in the IP header?
A. IP address of the router

Question 3:
What is described when a router acts as a default gateway, allowing a device on one subnet to find the MAC address of a host on another subnet?
A. proxy ARP
B. proxy RARP
C. RARP
D. subnetting

Question 4:
Which of the following is an example of an IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol)?
D. IGRP

Question 5:
Which type of routing allows routers to adjust to changing network conditions?
B. dynamic

Question 6:
Which is an example of a routed protocol?
B. IPX/SPX

Question 7:
When configuring a host computer, which of the following describes the router interface that connects to the same network segment?
A. default interface
B. default gateway
C. default port
D. default subnet

Question 8:
What are the two proprietary routing protocols developed by Cisco?
A. RIP and OSPF
B. IGRP and EIGRP
C. IPX and SPX
D. TCP and IP

Question 9:
In a connection-oriented system, what happens before any user data is transferred?
B. a connection is established between the sender and receiver

Question 10:
The IP address for a router interface should be part of what?
A. the network attached to the interface
B. any network attached to the router

Question 11:
Router ARP tables hold information from which of the following?
A. all Ethernet LANs
B. all networks connected to them

Question 12:
Which is a network layer protocol that can be routed?
A. IP

Question 13:
What do bridges and switches use to make data forwarding decisions?
D. IP addresses

Question 14:
In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
A. The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.

Question 15:
What do routers use to exchange routing tables and share route information?
A. routed protocols

Question 16:
Which protocol can find the MAC address of a computer given its IP address?
A. RARP
D. Proxy RARP

Question 17:
What happens if a data packet reaches a router that is destined for a network with which that router is not directly connected?
D. The router returns the packet to the source device with the explanation that the destination was unreachable.

Question 18:
Why is a static route the preferred method for reaching stub networks?
D. the routes are learned automatically

Question 19:
IP relies upon which OSI layer protocol to determine whether packets have been lost and request retransmission?
D. transport

Question 20:
Which describes the changes made to a packet's IP destination address, as that packet is passed from router to router on it's way to the destination host?
A. The destination IP address changes each hop, to be the address of the next router.
B. The destination IP address changes anytime a router is sending the packet over a WAN.
C. The destination IP address will always be the address of the first router.
D. The destination IP address never changes.

Question 21:
Which type of routing protocol is RIP?
A. distance vector

Question 22:
Connection-oriented network processes are often referred to as what?
C. circuit switched

Question 23:
What is the most common protocol used to transfer routing information between routers located on the same network?
B. RIP

Question 24:
Which of the following contains a unique network number that is used in routing?
A. MAC address
C. IP address

Question 25:
What is the correct term for when routes are learned automatically?
A. static routing
B. automatic routing
C. enhanced routing
D. dynamic routing

Question 26:
Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP addresses?
A. DHCP

Question 1:
If one system uses EBCDIC and a second system uses ASCII, which layer
provides the translation between the two different types of code?
A. Layer 6

Question 2:
In a TCP segment, which field defines the number of octets a reciient is
willing to accept?
B. checksum

Question 3:
Which ports are reserved by TCP and UDP for public applications?
B. numbers below 255

Question 4:
At which OSI layer does TCP operate?
A. Layer 4

Question 5:
The session layer establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between
_____________.
C. applications

Question 6:
Since TCP reassembles segments into complete messages, what happens if a
sequence number is missing in the series?
B. The missing segment is re-transmitted.

Question 7:
Which layer of the OSI model has the primary duty of regulating the flow of
information from source to destination reliably and accurately?
C. transport

Question 8:
What file format acts as a set of directions that tell a web browser how to
display and manage documents?
A. HTML

Question 9:
Which simple protocol exchanges datagrams, without acknowledgements or
guaranteed delivery?
D. UDP

Question 10:
Which term refers to the amount of data that can be transmitted before
receiving an acknowledgement?
B. closed connection

Question 11:
What is ASCII and EBCDIC used to format?
B. text

Question 12:
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the compression of files?
C. presentation

Question 13:
What are two file formats used by the Internet applications to display still
images?
C. GIF and JPEG

Question 14:
What type of communication avoids interrupts by taking turns?
A. two-way simultaneous

Question 15:
Which layer is responsible for data encryption?
B. Layer 6

Question 16:
What is the correct term for the orderly initiation, termination, and
managing of communication?
A. dialogue separation

Question 17:
What is the term used when sound files are downloaded while they are
playing?
D. streaming audio

Question 18:
What is the correct term for the sequence that synchronizes a connection at
both ends before any user data is exchanged?
B. segment retransmission
C. three-way handshake

Question 19:
Which of the following is a main function of the presentation layer?
D. data compression

Question 20:
What is it called when the session layer decides whether to use two-way
simultaneous or two-way alternate communication?
D. dialogue control

Question 21:
Which of the following would be an example of an important Layer 5 protocol?
B. NFS

Question 22:
What type of communication is used when two messages can cross during a
conversation?
C. two-way alternate

Question 23:
Which of the following is a characteristic of TCP?
C. divides outgoing messages into segments

Question 24:
Which of the following would describe Transmission Control Protocol?
B. connection-oriented

Question 25:
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for presenting data in a form
that the receiving device can understand?
D. application

Chap 15

Question 1:
Which connection is made to a server and maintained until
the user terminates the connection?
B. an FTP connection

Question 2:
What type of server is used to translate a domain name into
the associated IP address?
B. DNS

Question 3:
If you want to save a word processor file on a network
server, what network protocol enables the word processing application to become a network client?
A. redirector
B. file locator
C. StorFil
D. SNMP

Question 4:
Which connection to the remote server will be maintained
only long enough to process the transaction?
A. an FTP connection
B. a telnet session
C. downloading a web page
D. starting a computer

Question 5:
What device on a network manages domain names and responds
to requests from clients to translate a domain name into the associated IP address?
B. domain name server

Question 6:
What is the correct term for a string of characters and/or numbers that represents the numeric address of a group of computers at an Internet site?
A. domain name
B. Uniform Resource Locator
C. network redirector
D. Hypertext Markup Language

Question 7:
What is the language used to create web pages?
B. HTML

Question 8:
Which application layer protocol supports e-mail programs?
B. POP3

Question 9:
For security, when message recipients click to get their e-mail, they are usually prompted for what?
D. e-mail password

Question 10:
Which OSI layer does not provide support for any other OSI layer?
C. network

Question 11:
Which layer of the OSI model is closest to the user and determines whether sufficient resources exist for communication between systems?
D. application

Question 12:
The Telnet application works mainly at which layers of the
OSI model?
A. application and presentation
B. application, presentation, and session
C. presentation and session
D. presentation, session, and transport

Question 13:
Which protocol is designed to download or upload files on
the Internet?
C. FTP

Question 14:
Which of the following allows for routing that is based on classes of address, rather than individual addresses?
A. DNS address
B. MAC address
C. WINs address
D. IP address

Question 15:
Which of the following is a protocol that works with
computer operating systems and network clients instead of specific application programs?
A. extender
B. TCP
C. redirector
D. Uniform Resource Locator

Question 16:
What is an example of an application that requires both a client and server component in order to function?
A. web browser

Question 17:
Which of the following best defines an object on a web page that, when clicked, transfers you to a new web page?
B. hyperlink

Question 18:
E-mail addresses consist of which two parts?
A. recipient's username and postoffice address

Question 19:
What are most applications that work in a networked
environment classified as?
C. client-server applications

Question 20:
Which of the following is a network application?
A. web browser / WWW
B. network director
C. Hypertext Markup Language
D. ASCII

Question 21:
In the URL http://www.cisco.com, the "cisco.com" part identifies what?
A. the domain
B. the protocol to be used
C. the type of resource to contact
D. the folder